Right off the bat, I am going to apologize. This is going to be a lengthy post and might not have been posted in the correct area. If not, would a moderator please move it.
Let me introduce myself. I am a normal, healthy, adult male. I am married and have several children of my own. I am not a clinician or anything even close. My peers and I, however, hold weekly cerebral discussions where we pick a topic and tear it apart.
Recently, my peers and I have been discussing the concepts of love and sexuality. Topics include:
- are they matually exclusive, or intrinsicly related
- can they be experienced in degrees
- can they be further classified into sub-categories
- how gender, race, religion and age affects understanding
- is reciprocality mandatory with true love
Some example would be the differences in how one loves their spouse versus how they love their children and other relatives.
Some of my peers seemed to think that love, when isolated, is either on or off, while others think that it is layered in degrees. Personally, I think it would be impossible to define criteria for such layering. I'm interested to see what others think.
Ultimately, we came to the consensus that love is the admiration, respect and desire for the well being, and happiness of, another. While sexuality is a purely physical attraction, reaction, and desire for contact with another person. We also seemed to agree that each can be experienced on it's own, without the other present.
When viewed with these assumptions, it might be safely said the love for a spouse may indeed be intrinsically the same as love for any other person.
However, there were some point for contention that tested our conclusions.
One of the stickiest points in our discussions so far revolves around extreme age differences. Naturally, the discussing devolved into a rather argumentative debate on paedophila.
While we each understand the basic clinical definition of paedophilia (the desire for sex between adult and child), it became clear that we didn't all agree on our understanding of it in regards to love.
To help clarify the question I am posing, consider the following assertions:
- paedophilia is an attraction, on the part of an adult, of a sexual nature, to a child
- child must be under the age of consent
- age difference must be at least five years
Also please note the realization that not all paedophiles become molesters and not all molesters are actually paedophiles.
So here is the question posed by one of my peers:
Is it possible, with the separation of love and sexuality, for an adult to have romantic feelings for a child, with absolutely no desire what-so-ever to engage in a physical relationship, and would such a person still be considered a paedophile, considering sex is no longer part of the equation and that the clinical diagnosis does not reference actual love?
My own response to this question was:
You cited romantice feelings. Romance seems to be where love and sexuality overlap. In my opinion, it is the joining factor, where the two meet. So my answer is 'no'. It isn't possible, as romance includes both love and the desire for sex.
I am very interested to hear what others might think about the topic, so I can pass it along to my group for further debate.
Thank you for your time.