Sexual harassment

Postby pixie40 » Thu Oct 02, 2003 7:14 am

Dictionary meaning of “harassment” we all know. It is asking for doing an unwanted thing. It is not the simple meaning of the word, which is sought for here. I am looking for clinical/psychological reasoning, why the sexual harassment is applicable mostly to women and not men. Any sort of sexual approach from a man whether it is a comment or touch on the woman’s private parts under most of the circumstances are unwanted by an woman unknown to her. Conversely, similar approaches to a man by a woman (though very rare) are mostly not unwanted. Laws are made to prevent sexual harassment to women not to men. Prostitution profession is meant for women mostly all over the world because it is remunerative to them. This is because women feel the pain of harassment and men feel the pleasure and so they are paid for the pain and the pleasure the men get. Let us admit that sexual harassment is applicable mostly to woman. This is a fact, a reality. My question is why this sexual harassment is discriminating between man and woman.
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#1

Postby Roger Elliott » Thu Oct 02, 2003 10:38 am

Welcome to the forums pixie40!

My shot at this is that men are much more likely to sexually harass women than the other way round.
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#2

Postby Mark Tyrrell » Thu Oct 02, 2003 2:40 pm

Hello Pixie40 great to have you on the forum.

Sexual harassment certainly seems to be more of a male on female thing. Although bullying par se in the work place breaks down to around 50/50 male/female. However this is not to say that female on male sexual harassment never happens as I have known of cases where a man has been sexually harassed by a woman. The danger is that if this does happen it wont be taken seriously as people assume the man must enjoy unwanted sexual attention from any woman regardless of context.

Once again wellcome to the forum Pixie40 :D
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#3

Postby pixie40 » Thu Oct 02, 2003 3:55 pm

I like to ask why this discrimination between men and women over sexual harassment . Why a woman feel harassment when a man unknown to her aproaches her with sex intentions. Why the reverse is not true?
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#4

Postby Roger Elliott » Thu Oct 02, 2003 6:36 pm

I don't think the reverse is untrue, just that 1) women harass men less than men harass women and 2) men are less likely to be/feel threatened by it

There are no absolutes here, only tendencies, which I would have to say are down to biology.
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